Hey Everyone,
I'm reading Singer's book "Applied Ethics" for the first time.
I've gotten to the point where he discusses Parfit's "bad mom" puzzle. In that puzzle, which I'm sure everyone is familiar with, two mom's mess up their kids by two different means. TMom1 is pregnant but refuses to take a pill that will prevent a birth defect. Mom2 is not pregnant but refuses to quit smoking for the requisite three months before getting pregant (I've changed it a bit to make it more realistic).
The birth defect in both cases is relatively slight, pehaps each baby is born without a left foot and has to be fitted for an artifical foot.
We would intuitively say that both moms did something equally bad. The first by not taking the pill, the second by getting pregnant before quitting smoking. However, when kid2 says to Mom2, "why didn't you wait until three months after you stopped smoking before getting pregnant," Mom2 says, "But then you wouldn't be alive at all. I'd have had a different kid, presumably with both feet, but that kid wouldn't be you kid2 so count your blessings."
My question is, why can't kid2 say that his mother failed to bear him or her suffiently good intentions? Isn't it natural to think that kid2 can still say that his mother intended to bring him into the world with less than a fair start?
This brings me the question of why utilitarians hold intent out of the equation. Why is that? It seems to me that if Mom2 didn't have a conversation with her doctor, or that Mom1 didn't know about the pill, we wouldn't think that their actions were morally blameworthy at all. It's only because of what they know under the circumstances that their behavior is ethically suspect in the first place.
Am I missing something? I'm sort of new at this so take it easy on me.
I'm reading Singer's book "Applied Ethics" for the first time.
I've gotten to the point where he discusses Parfit's "bad mom" puzzle. In that puzzle, which I'm sure everyone is familiar with, two mom's mess up their kids by two different means. TMom1 is pregnant but refuses to take a pill that will prevent a birth defect. Mom2 is not pregnant but refuses to quit smoking for the requisite three months before getting pregant (I've changed it a bit to make it more realistic).
The birth defect in both cases is relatively slight, pehaps each baby is born without a left foot and has to be fitted for an artifical foot.
We would intuitively say that both moms did something equally bad. The first by not taking the pill, the second by getting pregnant before quitting smoking. However, when kid2 says to Mom2, "why didn't you wait until three months after you stopped smoking before getting pregnant," Mom2 says, "But then you wouldn't be alive at all. I'd have had a different kid, presumably with both feet, but that kid wouldn't be you kid2 so count your blessings."
My question is, why can't kid2 say that his mother failed to bear him or her suffiently good intentions? Isn't it natural to think that kid2 can still say that his mother intended to bring him into the world with less than a fair start?
This brings me the question of why utilitarians hold intent out of the equation. Why is that? It seems to me that if Mom2 didn't have a conversation with her doctor, or that Mom1 didn't know about the pill, we wouldn't think that their actions were morally blameworthy at all. It's only because of what they know under the circumstances that their behavior is ethically suspect in the first place.
Am I missing something? I'm sort of new at this so take it easy on me.