I have read your piece on the Brights and morality on your double standards blog. While I am only a bright in so far as I have made a few posts on their forum, I feel I should point out that the dispute might simply be a misunderstanding.
They've said that they believe morality is evolved and biologically underpinned. You've countered that morals are a matter of philosophical enquiry, not empirical enquiry. But as far as I'm concerned, both statements are true. That is, moral opinions occur through natural processes which can be empirically studied and moral truth can be obtained through philosophy. I daresay, I don't think the Brights necessarily intended to promote intuitionism, the idea that naturally occuring morals are good morals, or the idea that 'is' equals 'ought'. Unless you reject the brach of psychology which studies the formation of moral opinion, I don't see what the problem is.
First note my original post is at http://impartialism.blogspot.com/2008/1 ... ality.html
Secondly thread is not particularly about my concern over the Brights. That point is not relevant here but I want to respond to what Ryan understands above. In another forum's thread on this topic I said
1. Plenty of naturalists reject the possibility of a science of morality - we are united in disagreeing with them.
2. Other naturalists, me included, disagree with the definition of morality presented in the first draft statement of the morality
project- and it is quite irrelevant how many scientific studies are cited, it is a question over what is the target domain to be
investigated that could be called morality.The definition specifies something which is not, in mine and others views e.g. Bobsie's
(whether he thinks there could be a science of morality or not), morality.
3. This is only an issue with respect to the Brights Movement to the degree that this is officially endorsed by the Bright Movement, which,
as currently stands in its presentation on the main site, it appears to be.
Point 3 is irrelevant here. It is point 2 there is confusion over. To re-emphasize it I will re-quote "it is a question over what is the target domain to be
investigated that could be called morality". I am a consequentialist and utilitarian but of a particular type called Desire Utilitarianism. This is a ethically reductive naturalist form of realism , in other words I argue that a science of morality (for want of a better phrase) is possible. I accept that there is a branch of psychology studying moral thinking but that is not the same as studying morality empirically. Related, of course, but not the same.
"They've said that they believe morality is evolved and biologically underpinned" yes and so is astronomy, astrology, pigeon shooting, whatever. It is not saying very much AFAICS. It is either trivially true or substantively misplaced and it is the latter I am now highlighting here. What it is, is a physical and material process amenable to empirical analysis - the moral rules and codes being one of the outcomes of such a process - these also being amenable to empirical analysis. The process itself is the effects the people have on each other through their social interactions, which includes their reasoning over and application of "maps" - about what they are doing and what is good/bad and right/wrong but without a "territory" - actual physical, material effects on each other there is no underlying problem of morality. My issue with the Brights definition is that it defines all meaning out the term, focusing instead on how we produce maps. In other words their definition disregards consequences - the territory - however we might differ amongst ourselves as to what these are.
Since we are all utilitarianists here what does everyone else think is "the target domain to be investigated that could be called morality"?