For the bridge players here... This came up up yesterday, I'll present it as a double-dummy bidding 'problem':

xxx
xx
Ax
AKQxxx
(spades and hearts might have been the other way around)

opposite

Kxx
AQ
KQJxxx
Tx

North is dealer.

6D by south isn't cold, but it's pretty obviously the contract you want to play in. Is there any plausible way, using relatively standard bidding, that you could hope to reach it?

Our sequence was simply (opps passing)
1C 1D
2C 3NT

I was tempted to bid 2S instead of 3NT, but after opener's limit bid I couldn't see a way to realistically place us with enough playing strength for a slam. If I do bid spades, N's obvious bid is just 3C - but maybe he should show his holding in one of my suits? A 3D bid might just put us on track (although if he has 3S, maybe 3S is a better bid?), but I still can't see any way to justify assuming he has that much playing strength.

I think there's an argument for 3C as opener's first rebid, given the two aces and the strength of his clubs (and 6-loser hand with a good fragment in my suit), but everyone at the table thought that was loopy.

interesting problem - i think it is up to S to take control of the auction, but i agree it is hard to see that there is enough strength for a slam

perhaps rather than a jump into 3NT (auction ending bid)

after 1C 1D 3C? (are we agreed there is enough strength for that?) 3H (forcing, cue bid) 4C 4NT? etc but then the auction proceeds looking like you are going to slam in C

i think a jump to 3C would better show the playing strength of the N hand - S has to bid NT first because you need the lead to come to you with that Kxx AQ to protect

another alternative may be , in your auction after 3NT if N pulls to 4C then that is a slam hunting cue bid and you may be able to cue bid your way into your slam -
4C (ace) 4D (king)
4NT?? 5D (3 keycards for last bid suit)
5NT? (asking for kings) 6H? (two....or 6S cheapest non-trump K)
6NT?


i think 6NT played by S would be the best scoring contract - could be a disaster played by N!!

but as jinksy can tell you, i am a genuine beginner - have been playing jsut on 2 years now, so what would i know?

i asked an expert friend fir his suggestion and below is his reply

Well . . . Name is always Tricks. Dealer has 7 tricks if Responder has 2♣s and suit splits 3-2.

South has 6 tricks (5 Diamonds & Heart Ace)

Normal bidding . . .
1♣ 1♦
2♣ 2♠ . . . You want to "encourage" the Heart lead (Unbid Suit)
3♦ - 3 small or Honor x 4♦ - 1430 . . . All pard needs is 6♣ to AK and either ♠ A or ♦ A to make it a 50% slam
With these Major holdings, 5♦ may be right unless Responder bids 3NT
4NT - 2 w/o ♦ Q 6♦

No sin to only get to only 3NT (Particularly in MPs) - The rightsiding of NT protecting the ♠ K and the ♥ A Q is necessary for 3NT to make.

North cannot jump to 3♣ initially very well . . . not knowing the strength of South's 1♦ response -but- after South's GF 2♠ - He knows his hand will produce a lot of tricks. Even if South rebids 3NT after 3♦ - He should probably try further in case South had a "good" 5 card Diamond suit or 2 small ♣s.

Most slams require 10 Controls between the 2 hands . . . but may not when finesses are on -or- the hands have a X fit. btw North holds 5 Controls (3⅓ X 5 = 17 Control Points) . . . So in addition to 7 tricks he is + 4 Control Points.

South holds 4 Controls (4 X 3⅓ = No CP Deficient) -and- a 6 card suit to the K Q J x x x.

In essence . . . Double fit and 1st - 2nd round Controls make exploration needed. Worst case scenario has you playing 5 Minor when 3NT makes 4+ . . . Not so bad in IMPs but terrible @ MPs.

This hand provides a fascinating play problem: Say you reach 6D, win a trump lead in hand, lead a club at trick two, and West plays the Knave without thinking. How do you continue?
You've got twelve easy tricks if clubs are 3-2 by just drawing trumps and then playing another club but this no longer looks likely. If you believe West has a singleton club, you'll have re-entry issues, and can either hope the CT stands up next round [highly unlikely, but if West does ruff, he might find a heart shift...] or cross to dummy, take an immediate heart finesse, then draw trumps, cross to the clubs, pitch a spade on the Queen, and try a spade to the King. This is something under 25%. So how likely is West to have found the false-card? No idea.

6D is far from guaranteed, by the way. You need clubs to be 3-2 [around two chances in three] together with spades 5-2 or better [else they can take a spade ruff] and trumps not 5-0. All told, a little under 60% - you still want to be in it, but missing it is no disgrace.

6N is a better contract, as you can make it if clubs are 4-1 and someone has a stiff knave, together with various other chances if suits don't break nicely. Plus, it scores better.

As for the bidding, a 3C rebid is an overbid, but it's not ridiculous. Personally I'd treat it as a strong no trump hand, and either open or rebid 1N - depending on the system I'm playing - and jump immediately to 6N opposite. So I'd reach the right contract, from the wrong side, with little info given to opponents. East might find a spade lead to West's ace. Shit happens.

Arepo wrote:For the bridge players here... This came up up yesterday, I'll present it as a double-dummy bidding 'problem':

xxx
xx
Ax
AKQxxx
(spades and hearts might have been the other way around)

opposite

Kxx
AQ
KQJxxx
Tx

North is dealer.

6D by south isn't cold, but it's pretty obviously the contract you want to play in. Is there any plausible way, using relatively standard bidding, that you could hope to reach it?

Our sequence was simply (opps passing)
1C 1D
2C 3NT

I was tempted to bid 2S instead of 3NT, but after opener's limit bid I couldn't see a way to realistically place us with enough playing strength for a slam. If I do bid spades, N's obvious bid is just 3C - but maybe he should show his holding in one of my suits? A 3D bid might just put us on track (although if he has 3S, maybe 3S is a better bid?), but I still can't see any way to justify assuming he has that much playing strength.

I think there's an argument for 3C as opener's first rebid, given the two aces and the strength of his clubs (and 6-loser hand with a good fragment in my suit), but everyone at the table thought that was loopy.

I think the most likely way to reach slam here is 1C 2D although this is a slight overbid.

GordonHide wrote:I think the most likely way to reach slam here is 1C 2D although this is a slight overbid.

Hi GH, welcome to the forum. Glad to see we're accumulating bridge players, too

2D doesn't grab me here. You have an unremarkable 15 count apart from the diamond length (and long suit is assumed anyway if you're jump-shifting) - relatively flat, hardly any intermediates, only one ace, and mild evidence of a misfit with partner.

Aside from that, I prefer to play weak jump shifts, which would make the whole thing moot...

Arepo wrote:

GordonHide wrote:I think the most likely way to reach slam here is 1C 2D although this is a slight overbid.

Hi GH, welcome to the forum. Glad to see we're accumulating bridge players, too

2D doesn't grab me here. You have an unremarkable 15 count apart from the diamond length (and long suit is assumed anyway if you're jump-shifting) - relatively flat, hardly any intermediates, only one ace, and mild evidence of a misfit with partner.

Aside from that, I prefer to play weak jump shifts, which would make the whole thing moot...

I would urge you to reject weak jump shifts in the case of 1C 2D. It is inviting your opponents to find their major fit with a simple take-out double.

The overbid is justified with this hand because on almost all N rebids S will be back pedalling with a 3NT limit bid. After this bid N should upgrade his hand because of the two aces and the more than adequate diamond holding and bid 4D. This is followed by whatever control revealing sequence you prefer.