Hi
I'm pretty new to philosophy, so if this question seems like a pretty obvious one take pity on the newbie. Alright, as I understand consequentialism the moral value of any action is judged by the result, the outcome. From how I understand it 'intent' plays no part in judging whether the action is the right one or not.
If this is correct, then how would consequentialists form a distinction between these two hypothetical scenarios.
1. Terrorists take over a school and kill all of the kids before blowing themselves up. That was their plan. The families are distraught, the terrorists families are happy in that they believe that their siblings have achieved 'martydom', their terrorist organization is happy.
2. US troops accidentally, say through bad intelligence the same building is used at night-time for terrorist slide nights, but during the day it's a school, drop a bomb on a school. The Americans never planned or desired to blow up the kids, indeed they feel terrible about it. No matter of apologies or aid is going to help the families who are naturally distraught.
Now I understand that in scenario 1 far more people are made unhappy and fearful than scenario 2, and that both actions are bad things to have happened. Is this what it is that allows consequentialists to pass judgement after the fact to these types of scenario? That by people understanding that the US is far less likely to repeat this action tht it is a better of two evils?
If intent plays no part in the result, and resulting judgment then they would seem to be equally 'bad'. However this seems a bit morally brutal, leaving no room for error or unforeseen actions. The Americans in scenario 2 acted to the best of their ability with the best posible info they had at the time. Does that not count for anything?
I'm pretty new to philosophy, so if this question seems like a pretty obvious one take pity on the newbie. Alright, as I understand consequentialism the moral value of any action is judged by the result, the outcome. From how I understand it 'intent' plays no part in judging whether the action is the right one or not.
If this is correct, then how would consequentialists form a distinction between these two hypothetical scenarios.
1. Terrorists take over a school and kill all of the kids before blowing themselves up. That was their plan. The families are distraught, the terrorists families are happy in that they believe that their siblings have achieved 'martydom', their terrorist organization is happy.
2. US troops accidentally, say through bad intelligence the same building is used at night-time for terrorist slide nights, but during the day it's a school, drop a bomb on a school. The Americans never planned or desired to blow up the kids, indeed they feel terrible about it. No matter of apologies or aid is going to help the families who are naturally distraught.
Now I understand that in scenario 1 far more people are made unhappy and fearful than scenario 2, and that both actions are bad things to have happened. Is this what it is that allows consequentialists to pass judgement after the fact to these types of scenario? That by people understanding that the US is far less likely to repeat this action tht it is a better of two evils?
If intent plays no part in the result, and resulting judgment then they would seem to be equally 'bad'. However this seems a bit morally brutal, leaving no room for error or unforeseen actions. The Americans in scenario 2 acted to the best of their ability with the best posible info they had at the time. Does that not count for anything?