Short form (might be enough to understand my post ): If my valuation/measurement of different hedonic states is far off the average valuation, should I update for regression to the mean?
Hey y'all,
First of all I don't want to start another epic-length discussion on NU/NLU/CU/PU. Reading through all the discussions I made this little theory though and want to know if I'm making any sense. I don't know myself how much I value suffering vs. happiness (and intense vs. light versions) yet and I'm not even sure if I'm in a position to judge their value. I'm not sure either if my theory means anything when we deny moral realism because of Occam's Razor.
So here it goes. Our moral valuation of different hedonic states is based entirely on our remembered perception. Thus, the only measure we have for positive and negative moral value is (to this date) perception. If our perception said that a pin prick was worse than burning in hell then that would be our moral valuation of the two. If our perception says that an orgasm doesn't make up for a pin prick then that is our relative moral valuation of the two. In the latter case it seems reasonable to consider yourself a negative leaning utilitarian (at first sight), because your perception is far off that of the average person. We have to keep in mind that our moral valuation is based on our subjective (remembered) perception. Our perception is our only measurement.
As someone who makes a measurement that is far off the average perception/measurement one ought to correct for regression to the mean though. One should not think that one's own perception that is far off the middle of, say, the bell curve of perceptions was better than the other measurements. Thus one should update accordingly. Unless one has reason to believe that the other measurements are systematically flawed. Examples of this are mad in Daniel Kahneman's work (see e.g. "The riddle of experience vs memory" on TED).
One may also add that the perceptions of non-human animals are not included in what most humans would consider average measurements of hedonic states. There are large amounts of suffering by particularly large amounts of individuals taking place in the wild. This is getting speculative but still, they may take a pin prick for an orgasm and exchange some short, intense form of suffering for a long, mild one. One would still have to update one's measurements for regression to the mean if one is an observer with perceptions far off the mean.
This seems particularly relevant if one makes a decision for others. Taking suffering in exchange for happiness or intense suffering in exchange for a prolonged period of light suffering would be examples of such decisions.
Amongst other things I'm really not sure whether one can "measure" hedonic states. But doesn't it make sense that one should update if one's own perceptions were "outliers"? If yes, this could have implications for how I value different perceived hedonic states.
Hey y'all,
First of all I don't want to start another epic-length discussion on NU/NLU/CU/PU. Reading through all the discussions I made this little theory though and want to know if I'm making any sense. I don't know myself how much I value suffering vs. happiness (and intense vs. light versions) yet and I'm not even sure if I'm in a position to judge their value. I'm not sure either if my theory means anything when we deny moral realism because of Occam's Razor.
So here it goes. Our moral valuation of different hedonic states is based entirely on our remembered perception. Thus, the only measure we have for positive and negative moral value is (to this date) perception. If our perception said that a pin prick was worse than burning in hell then that would be our moral valuation of the two. If our perception says that an orgasm doesn't make up for a pin prick then that is our relative moral valuation of the two. In the latter case it seems reasonable to consider yourself a negative leaning utilitarian (at first sight), because your perception is far off that of the average person. We have to keep in mind that our moral valuation is based on our subjective (remembered) perception. Our perception is our only measurement.
As someone who makes a measurement that is far off the average perception/measurement one ought to correct for regression to the mean though. One should not think that one's own perception that is far off the middle of, say, the bell curve of perceptions was better than the other measurements. Thus one should update accordingly. Unless one has reason to believe that the other measurements are systematically flawed. Examples of this are mad in Daniel Kahneman's work (see e.g. "The riddle of experience vs memory" on TED).
One may also add that the perceptions of non-human animals are not included in what most humans would consider average measurements of hedonic states. There are large amounts of suffering by particularly large amounts of individuals taking place in the wild. This is getting speculative but still, they may take a pin prick for an orgasm and exchange some short, intense form of suffering for a long, mild one. One would still have to update one's measurements for regression to the mean if one is an observer with perceptions far off the mean.
This seems particularly relevant if one makes a decision for others. Taking suffering in exchange for happiness or intense suffering in exchange for a prolonged period of light suffering would be examples of such decisions.
Amongst other things I'm really not sure whether one can "measure" hedonic states. But doesn't it make sense that one should update if one's own perceptions were "outliers"? If yes, this could have implications for how I value different perceived hedonic states.