Hey everyone, would still love to hear everyone's thoughts on Mike's thread on meta-ethics, but i thought this would be an interesting as well. I was just returned a book I had lent out to a friend a while back "The Fabric of Reality" by David Deutsch. For those not familiar with Deutsch, he is known most imfamously for support of the multiverse theory, and to a lesser degree as a quantum computation expert. In "The Fabric of Reality" and elsewhere he indicates sympathies with Karl Popper's political views which as I understand them are "negative utilitarian". (On a side note, Deutsch contemporary Michael Lockwood has had some harsh words for Peter Singer in the past.) Towards the end of the book, the subject turns to the foundations of morality and this is what he has to say on utilitarianism:
Utilitarianism was the earlier attempt to integrate moral explanations with the scientific world-view through 'usefulness'. Here 'usefulness' was identified with calculating which action would produce the most happiness, either for one person or (and the theory became more vague here) for 'the greatest number' of people. Different versions of the theory substituted 'pleasure' or 'preferece' for 'happiness'. Considered as a repudiation of earlier, authoritarian systems of morality, utilitarianism is unexceptionable. And in the sense that it simply advocates rejectiong dogma and acting on the 'preferred' theory, the one that has survived rational criticism, every rational person is a utilitarian. But as an attempt to solve the problem we are discussing here, of explaining the meaning of moral judgements, it too has a fatal flaw: we choose our preferences. In particular, we change our preferences, and we give moral explanations for doing so. Such an explanation cannot be translated into utilitarian terms. Is there an underlying, master-preference that controls preference changes? If so, it could not itself be changed, and utilitarianism would degenerate into the genetic theory of morality discussed above.
Now, I certainly did not renounce my utilitarian views after reading this, but just playing devil's advocate here: how would you respond to Deutsch?
Utilitarianism was the earlier attempt to integrate moral explanations with the scientific world-view through 'usefulness'. Here 'usefulness' was identified with calculating which action would produce the most happiness, either for one person or (and the theory became more vague here) for 'the greatest number' of people. Different versions of the theory substituted 'pleasure' or 'preferece' for 'happiness'. Considered as a repudiation of earlier, authoritarian systems of morality, utilitarianism is unexceptionable. And in the sense that it simply advocates rejectiong dogma and acting on the 'preferred' theory, the one that has survived rational criticism, every rational person is a utilitarian. But as an attempt to solve the problem we are discussing here, of explaining the meaning of moral judgements, it too has a fatal flaw: we choose our preferences. In particular, we change our preferences, and we give moral explanations for doing so. Such an explanation cannot be translated into utilitarian terms. Is there an underlying, master-preference that controls preference changes? If so, it could not itself be changed, and utilitarianism would degenerate into the genetic theory of morality discussed above.
Now, I certainly did not renounce my utilitarian views after reading this, but just playing devil's advocate here: how would you respond to Deutsch?